AS311 exam 3

67 flashcards · Other · by macauley dsouza

1. What is the purpose of the combustor drain? A) Allow excess fuel pressure to vent during high power settings B) Allow unburned fuel to return to the fuel tank during flight C) Allow unburned fuel to return to the combustor during idle engine power D) Decrease the risk of hot starts or exhaust pipe fires

   D) Decrease the risk of hot starts or exhaust pipe fires

2. What type(s) of engine(s) must be started using an electric starter before they can help start the primary engine(s)? A) Neither a pneumatic ground power unit nor an auxiliary power unit B) Pneumatic ground power unit and auxiliary power unit C) Only a pneumatic ground power unit D) Only an auxiliary power unit

   B) Pneumatic ground power unit and auxiliary power unit

3. What is the significance of the "dry bay" (blue zone) in this fire detection zones map? A) No sources of oxygen B) No sources of heat C) No sources of ignition D) No sources of liquid fuel

   D) No sources of liquid fuel

4. In what order are turbine engines usually started? Introduce fuel Disengage starter at designated N2 or Ng speed Turn on igniters Engage starter and begin turning compressor

   1) Engage starter and begin turning compressor 2) Turn on igniters 3) Introduce fuel 4) Disengage starter at designated N2 or Ng speed

5. What type of starter is commonly used to start this ground power unit (GPU)? A) Pneumatic B) Electric C) Auxiliary Power Unit D) Starter-Generator

   B) Electric

6. What is the purpose of the relief valve on the left side of the image? A) Allow fuel to bypass the filter B) Open when fuel pressure exceeds spring pressure C) Close when fuel pressure exceeds spring pressure D) Allow fuel that was unused in the atomizer to return to the fuel tank

   B) Open when fuel pressure exceeds spring pressure

7. What is/are the primary temperature gauge(s) that are monitored during engine start? A) Only EGT B) Only ITT C) EGT or ITT D) CHT or TIT

   C) EGT or ITT

8. A FCU that uses hydraulic pressure to create mechanical motion is known as what type of FCU? A) Electromechanical B) Hydromechanical C) Pneumato-hydraulic D) Pneumatic

   B) Hydromechanical

9. What are the elements of the fire triangle? Choose all that apply. A) Oxygen B) Fuel C) Fire D) Heat

   A) Oxygen B) Fuel D) Heat

10. Regarding the fuel system, what is the purpose of the fuel/oil heat exchanger in the upper-left part of the image? A) Cool the fuel after being pressurized by the high-pressure fuel pumps B) Help prevent ice in the fuel system C) Cool the fuel before returning to the fuel tanks D) Help prevent ice in the lubrication system

    B) Help prevent ice in the fuel system

11. How are anti-stall bleed valves controlled? A) Automatically via the EICAS B) Manually by moving the ENGINE BLEED control to OPEN/CLOSED C) Manually via the bleed valve bypass system D) Anti-stall systems are controlled automatically

    D) Anti-stall systems are controlled automatically

12. Calculate Thrust Specific Fuel Consumption (TSFC) per engine for the Pilatus PC-24 airplane with the Williams FJ44 turbofan engine: **Round answer to the nearest 1/100 and do not enter units** Fuel flow: 936 lbs/hr Fn: 2,566 lbf

    0.36 Formulae given at the start of the test TSFC = Fuel Flow/Fn

13. When do you expect an anti-stall compressor bleed valve to be open? A) When N2 is increased above a pre-determined value B) When compressor outlet pressure is too high compared to combustor pressure C) When compressor outlet pressure is lower than inlet pressure D) When compressor inlet and outlet pressures are equal

    B) When compressor outlet pressure is too high compared to combustor pressure

14. What is the purpose of the pawls in this image? A) Remain engaged with the starter ratchet at all RPMs B) Disengage from the starter ratchet at low RPM C) Engage with the pneumatic starter ratchet until disengaged by centrifugal force D) Engage with the pneumatic starter ratchet at high RPM during air restarts

    C) Engage with the pneumatic starter ratchet until disengaged by centrifugal force

15. To what type(s) of engine(s) do these instruments refer? A) Turbofan B) Turbojet C) Turbofan or turboshaft D) Turboprop or turboshaft

    D) Turboprop or turboshaft

16. What type of starter is used when decreasing weight is critical and bleed air is unavailable, such as in the Cessna Caravan? A) Starter-generator B) Auxiliary power unit C) Hydraulic D) Pneumatic

    A) Starter-generator

17. What engine anti-stall system could be seen immediately behind the compressor fan in this GE90 engine? A) Variable inlet guide vanes B) Anti-stall bleed system C) Anti-stall systems are never installed in the front compressor stages D) Compressor bypass guide vanes

    A) Variable inlet guide vanes

18. What is the primary reason that environmental bleed systems are shut down when a fire is detected? A) To eliminate a source of ignition B) To prevent fire from spreading to the cabin C) To eliminate a source of heat D) To prevent toxic gases from entering the cabin

    D) To prevent toxic gases from entering the cabin

19. How is the automated starting sequence (most likely) initiated in this Airbus A350? A) Switching the engine master lever to ON after choosing IGN/START with the start mode switch B) Switching the engine master lever to ON without any additional action required C) Switching the start mode switch to IGN START without any other action required D) Moving the power control levers forward to the START position

    A) Switching the engine master lever to ON after choosing IGN/START with the start mode switch

20. Based on the following METAR, is inlet icing likely to form? A) Yes. I expect inlet icing up to 70°F in visible moisture. B) No. I expect inlet icing up to 45°F in visible moisture.. C) No. I expect inlet icing up to 40°F in visible moisture. D) No. I expect inlet icing up to 32°F in both dry air and visible moisture.

    B) No. I expect inlet icing up to 45°F in visible moisture..

21. What type of fuel control unit (FCU) uses gas pressures from the engine to regulate fuel flow? A) Hydromechanical B) Pneumatic C) Mechanical D) Electro-mechanical

    B) Pneumatic

22. Considering aircraft fire mitigation, what is/are the primary source(s) of ignition for a fire? A) Only an open flame B) Only hot engine components (e.g. turbine section) C) Aircraft fuel (e.g. Jet A or 100LL), oil, or hydraulic fluid D) Electrical or hot engine components (e.g. turbine section)

    D) Electrical or hot engine components (e.g. turbine section)

23. What is the name and purpose of the black box in this image? A) Lead. Carry the electrical current from the exciter to the igniter plug. B) Igniter plug. Create a high voltage spark for use in the combustor. C) Igniter plug housing. Contain the igniter spark for use in the combustor. D) Exciter. Increase voltage to create a spark in the igniter plug.

    D) Exciter. Increase voltage to create a spark in the igniter plug.

24. What is the operational purpose of the ITT engine instrument? A) Primary temperature instrument to identify a hot start B) Primary temperature instrument to monitor accessory gearbox operation C) Primary temperature instrument to monitor inlet for icing conditions D) Primary temperature instrument to monitor propeller governor operation

    A) Primary temperature instrument to identify a hot start

25. Which airplane consumes less fuel per pound of thrust based on the following TSFC values? Gulfstream 700 (TSFC = 0.38) Honda Jet (TSFC = 0.42) A) The Gulfstream 700 because the thrust produced is greater B) The Honda Jet because the TSFC is higher C) The Gulfstream 700 because the TSFC is lower D) The Honda Jet because the thrust produced is lower

    C) The Gulfstream 700 because the TSFC is lower

26. What is the most common number of igniters in each turbine-powered engine? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four

    B) Two

27. What is the primary instrument to identify a hung start? A) ITT B) Turbine RPM C) Propeller RPM D) Torque

    B) Turbine RPM

28. An engine firewall is an example of what method of fire hazard mitigation? A) Dual loop detection systems B) Single loop detection systems C) Compartmentation or isolation D) Fire detection zones

    C) Compartmentation or isolation

29. Why does the Boeing 767 fuel system include a fuel-oil heat exchanger? A) Fuel cools the oil and the oil helps heat the fuel B) The fuel powers the heat exchanger C) The fuel helps decrease the oil viscosity D) Oil helps cool the fuel and the fuel helps heat the oil

    A) Fuel cools the oil and the oil helps heat the fuel

30. What is the name and numerical value of the ideal ratio of fuel to air weight for combustion? A) Vapor ratio. 1:5 B) Stoichiometric ratio. 15:1 C) Hydropneumatic. 5:1 D) There is no ideal ratio because it changes for each engine

    B) Stoichiometric ratio. 15:1

31. What type of fuel control unit (FCU) uses mechanical linkages and fuel pressure to change fuel flow? A) Pneumatic-mechanical B) Pneumatic C) Mechanical D) Hydromechanical

    D) Hydromechanical

32. What type of starter is most likely used to start the engine in the tail cone of this airplane? A) Hydraulic starter B) Starter-generator C) Electric starter D) Pneumatic starter

    C) Electric starter

33. You see this annunciation (Crew Alerting System message...CAS MSG) on the G1000 PFD in your Cessna Caravan turboprop. What is the message's meaning? A) At least one turbine blade is failing B) Metallic chips have been detected in the oil C) At least one compressor blade is failing D) A seal has failed

    B) Metallic chips have been detected in the oil

34. This fire detection element is filled with hydrogen and helium gas. What type of system is this? A) Dual-loop system B) Pneumatic system C) Single-loop system D) The EICAS

    B) Pneumatic system

35. On the King Air power control lever, what is "ground fine" and when is it used? A) Beta-forward...during takeoff B) Beta-reverse...when reverse thrust is required C) Feather...during engine shutdown D) Beta-forward...when minimum taxi speeds are required

    D) Beta-forward...when minimum taxi speeds are required

36. What is/are the most likely power instrument(s) in a turbofan engine during climb and cruise? A) EGT or ITT B) N2 percentage C) Ng percentage D) EPR or N1 percentage

    D) EPR or N1 percentage

37. What type of igniter produces a spark? A) Only glow plug igniters B) Igniter plugs and glow plug igniters C) Only igniter plugs D) Trick question...turbine engines do not use glow plug igniters

    C) Only igniter plugs

38. What fuel system component is specifically designed to help prevent hot starts and tail pipe fires during starting? A) Filter bypass B) FCU C) Combustor drain valve D) Fuel cooler

    C) Combustor drain valve

39. How can the pilot disengage a pneumatic starter from the cockpit? A) By manually disengaging the sprag clutch ratchet B) By manually decreasing the starter throttle to idle C) Via the pressure-regulating or shut-off valve D) By manually disengaging the pawls

    C) Via the pressure-regulating or shut-off valve

40. Considering the fire or combustion triangle, what is "fuel"? A) Any combustible material B) Only combustible liquids like fuel (Jet A), oil, or hydraulic fluid C) Only fuel (e.g. Jet A or 100LL) or oil D) Only aircraft fuel like Jet A or 100LL

    A) Any combustible material

41. This two-wire fire detection system relies on electrical resistance to detect a fire and both wires must indicate a fire before an alert is triggered in the cockpit. What type of system is this? A) Single-loop system B) Pneumatic system C) The EICAS D) Dual-loop system

    D) Dual-loop system

42. What type of thrust augmentation system is visible in the image? A) Afterburner B) Exhaust exit guide vanes C) Alcohol injection D) Alcohol injection

    A) Afterburner

43. What is most likely contained inside these fire suppression system components? A) Hydrogen B) Single-loop detection systems C) Dual-loop detection systems D) Carbon dioxide or halon

    D) Carbon dioxide or halon

44. What is the location and purpose of a transient bleed valve system? A) Engine inlet. Helps protect the compressor fan and N1 compressor from debris and ice B) Between the compressor fan and N1 compressor. Helps regulate N2 compressor airflow during icing conditions. C) Between the N2 compressor and combustor. Regulates turbine airflow to prevent compressor stall. D) Between the N1 and N2 compressor. Helps protect the N2 compressor from debris and ice.

    C) Between the N2 compressor and combustor. Regulates turbine airflow to prevent compressor stall.

45. What conditions lead to a high thrust specific fuel consumption (TSFC)? A) Equal fuel consumption per pound of thrust B) Low fuel consumption per pound of thrust C) High fuel consumption per pound of thrust D) Fuel consumption and thrust are not related

    C) High fuel consumption per pound of thrust

46. Where are turbine engine anti-ice systems most likely to be found? A) Engine inlet and N2 compressor B) Engine inlet, compressor inlet guide vanes, and compressor fan spinner C) Compressor, combustor, and turbine D) Compressor fan and N2 compressor

    B) Engine inlet, compressor inlet guide vanes, and compressor fan spinner

47. Based on the current METAR at KSEA in Washington (altitude = sea level), do you expect the variable inlet guide vanes to open at a higher or lower N2 RPM than standard? KSEA 111653Z 05003KT 10SM FEW020 OVC045 19/02 A3017 RMK AO2 SLP225 T00560022 $ A) Higher N2 because the air density is lower than standard. B) Higher N2 because the air density is higher than standard. C) Lower N2 because the air density is lower than standard. D) Lower N2 because the air density is higher than standard.

    A) Higher N2 because the air density is lower than standard.

48. What is the primary difference between JetA and JetA1 fuels? A) Jet A1 includes renewable biomass additives B) Jet A1 has a lower freezing point C) Jet A has a higher flashpoint D) Jet A has a lower freezing point

    B) Jet A1 has a lower freezing point

49. What is the meaning of "VIB" near the bottom of this image? A) Oil viscosity index in centistoke format B) Engine vibration in 1/1000 of an inch C) Oil viscosity index in SAE format D) Engine vibration in 1/10 of an inch

    B) Engine vibration in 1/1000 of an inch

50. What anti-stall system(s) decrease(s) EPR? A) Only anti-stall bleed valves B) Neither VIGV nor anti-stall bleed valves C) VIGV and anti-stall bleed valves D) Only VIGV

    C) VIGV and anti-stall bleed valves

51. Why are turbine engines more likely to stall at low RPM (e.g. location marked by blue star)? A) The EPR is too low for the mass airflow B) The mass airflow is too low for the compression ratio C) The mass airflow is too high for the compression ratio D) The pressure is too high in the forward sections of the compressor

    B) The mass airflow is too low for the compression ratio

52. The Cessna 441 Conquest is a turboprop and does not have an APU. What type of starter is the least likely to be used to start these engines? A) Starter-generator B) Ram air turbine starter C) Electric starter D) Pneumatic starter

    D) Pneumatic starter

53. What type of start has occurred if the ITT climbs to 1100°C and stays there for 4 seconds before decreasing to 680°C? A) The ITT is not related to turbine engine operations B) Hung start C) Runaway start D) Hot start

    D) Hot start

54. How does a variable inlet guide vane anti-stall system change EPR at low RPM? A) EPR is increased B) EPR remains constant C) EPR will fluctuate rapidly D) EPR is decreased

    D) EPR is decreased

55. What type of starter requires an external source of compressed air? A) Auxiliary power unit B) Electrical C) Starter-generator D) Pneumatic

    D) Pneumatic

56. Which instrument(s) can be used to identify a compressor stall? A) FF and N1 B) EPR C) N2 and EGT D) FLX

    C) N2 and EGT

57. EGT is increasing and N2 is fluctuating. What is most likely happening and what is the appropriate pilot action? A) Compressor underspeed. Decrease EPR. B) Compressor stall. Increase engine power C) Combustor flameout. Increase fuel flow. D) Compressor stall. Decrease engine power

    D) Compressor stall. Decrease engine power

58. Calculate the thrust specific fuel consumption (TSFC) per engine for the General Electric CF6-80 turbofan engine given the following conditions: **Round all answers to the nearest 1/100** Net thrust: 20,523 lbs. Fuel flow: 11,534 lbs/hr

    0.56 Formulae given at the start of the test TSFC = Fuel Flow/Fn

59. What is the name and purpose of the open doors on the side of the engine cowl? A) Cascade reverser. Redirect core/hot exhaust B) Cascade reverser. Redirect cold/bypass airflow C) Mechanical blockage reverser. Redirect cold/bypass airflow D) Mechanical blockage reverser. Redirect core/hot exhaust

    B) Cascade reverser. Redirect cold/bypass airflow

60. For what type(s) of engine(s) is this the primary power instrument? A) Turbofan only B) Turbojet only C) Turboprop and turboshaft D) Turbofan and turbojet

    C) Turboprop and turboshaft

61. What type of fuel is designed specifically for high-altitude and/or cold weather operations? A) JP-5 B) Prist C) Jet A1 D) Jet A

    C) Jet A1

62. A fuel control unit (FCU) that uses air pressure to create mechanical motion is known as what type of FCU? A) Hydromechanical B) Electromechanical C) Pneumatic D) Pneumato-hydraulic

    C) Pneumatic

63. How do you determine which types of fuel are acceptable for the engine(s) on your aircraft? A) Turbine-powered engines can burn an equal or higher rating of fuel B) Check the AFM or POH C) All turbine-powered engines can burn any type of jet fuel D) Turbine-powered engines can burn an equal or lower rating of fuel

    B) Check the AFM or POH

64. What two points in the engine provide the engine pressure ratio (EPR) in most engines? A) Compressor exit and engine inlet B) Diffuser and engine inlet C) N2 compressor pressure and N1 turbine pressure D) High pressure turbine exhaust and engine inlet

    D) High pressure turbine exhaust and engine inlet

65. What is the primary difference between Jet A and Jet A1 fuels? A) Jet A1 includes renewable biomass additives B) Jet A has a lower freezing point C) Jet A1 has a lower freezing point D) Jet A has a higher flashpoint

    Jet A1 has a lower freezing point

66. In what position will the variable inlet guide vanes be positioned in order to move the EPR and Ms from the blue star to the red circle? A) High pitch (open) B) Low pitch (open) C) Low pitch (closed) D) High pitch (closed)

    C) Low pitch (closed)

67. What is the primary power instrument for a turboprop engine? A) ITT B) Engine RPM C) Torque D) Propeller RPM

    C) Torque