AS 356 Final Exam Prep | All Exams

147 flashcards · Other · by Nicholas Enoul

1. ENGINES: In a 4-cycle reciprocating engine, if the piston moves up and down 4 times to complete a full cycle, each valve will open ___ time(s). A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 1 Exam 1

   D. 1

2. Which of the following is not a bearing used in an aircraft engine? 1). Ball Bearings 2). Roller Bearings 3). Plain Bearings 4). All of the listed bearings can be used in aircraft engines Exam 1

   4). All of the listed bearings can be used in aircraft engines

3. Intake and exhaust valves for an engine cylinder are spring loaded to the ______ position. 1). Closed 2). Open Exam 1

   1). Closed

4. Referring to the 'Otto Cycle' of a reciprocating engine operation (I.e., Lycoming IO-360), what is the third cycle/stroke of the four strokes of the complete operating cycle? A. Power B. Intake C. Compression D. Exhaust Exam 1

   A. Power

5. Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP) is a measure of absolute pressure in the reciprocating engine’s __________ and is measured on the MAP indicator in the cockpit in inches of Hg. 1). crankcase 2). intake manifold 3). cylinders 4). exhaust manifold Exam 1

   2). intake manifold

6. A reciprocating engine’s crank shaft turns at __________% of the speed of the cam shaft. A. 200 (2:1) B. 50 C. 33 D. 100 (1:1) E. 25 Exam 1

   A. 200 (2:1) Note: As you can see in this gif, you need to have the crank shaft turn faster than the camshaft. Otherwise, the valves would open far more than it should. Camshaft is for valves, crank for cylinders.

7. What is the principal fluid used for propulsion by virtually all heat engines, including the airplane reciprocating engine? 1). air 2). water 3). jet fuel 4). gasoline Exam 1

   1). air

8. The foundation of a reciprocating engine is the/are the _______________. 1). crankshaft 2). camshaft 3). cylinders 4). crankcase Exam 1

   4). crankcase

9. This component’s main purpose is to transform the reciprocating motion of the piston(s) and connecting rod(s) into rotary motion for rotation of the propeller. On many small aircraft engines this component directly drives the propeller. That component is the _______________. 1). crankshaft 2). camshaft 3). cylinders 4). crankcase Exam 1

   1). crankshaft

10. A journal will most commonly be found on which engine component? 1). magnetos 2). piston connecting rod 3). crankshaft 4). valve rocker arm Exam 1

    3). crankshaft Note: journals are exclusively associated with crankshafts.

11. For a reciprocating airplane engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, the ____________ controls the engine/prop RPM and the ____________ controls the engine manifold pressure (MAP). A. propellor control; throttle B. throttle; propeller control Exam 1

    A. propellor control; throttle

12. This engine component causes/starts the engine’s valves to open and close at the proper time and for the proper duration: __________________. 1). tappet assembly 2). push rod 3). camshaft 4). crankshaft Exam 1

    3). camshaft

13. Exam 1 For a 4 cycle, 4 cylinder horizontally opposed non-geared aircraft engine, how many ‘power strokes’ will each cylinder have if the engine crank shaft turns 2 full revolutions? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

    A. 1

14. Exam 1 The wire that grounds the magnetos when the magneto switch is in the OFF position is called the: 1). C-Lead 2). D-Lead 3). P-Lead 4). V-Lead

    3). P-Lead

15. Exam 1 A reciprocating engine’s cylinder’s intake and exhaust valves will never/can never be open at the same time during normal operation. True / False

    Answer: False

16. Exam 1 LUBRICATION: Oil which flows slowly is said to have this kind of viscosity: ____________ 1). high 2). low 3). medium 4). none

    1). high

17. Exam 1 The type of engine oil most commonly used in a modern general aviation horizontally opposed reciprocating engine which is fifty hours or more past its last major overhaul and the ‘break in’ period is: 1). synthetic 2). mineral 4). Exxon 5). ashless-dispersant

    5). ashless-dispersant Note: AD lube is most common after break in period. Most common lubricant in GA and helps clean the engine Mineral Oil is great at lubricating, but can create sludge. Helps during break-in period. Not great with high-heat. Synthetic is usually used in turbine engines. Great in very hot and very cold temperature conditions.

18. Exam 1 The type of aircraft reciprocating engine lubrication system which has a separate, (not attached to the engine) oil reservoir is termed a _______________ system. 1). self-contained 2). remote 3). wet-sump 4). dry-sump

    4). dry-sump

19. Exam 1 The letter ‘W’ used in aircraft engine oil designations (i.e. SAE 5W30) indicates the oil is approved for: 1). for extra heavy wear 2). use in hot, dust prone regions 3). cold winter operations 4). for engine break-in following overhaul

    3). cold winter operations

20. Exam 1 What is the relationship between commercial aviation grade lubricating oil numbers and SAE numbers? A. they are identical B. there is no relationship

    B. there is no relationship

21. Exam 1 PROPELLERS & RELATED SYSTEMS: The difference between the geometric pitch and the effective pitch of the propeller is termed: ________________ 1). Angle of attack 2). aerodynamic twisting force 3). slip 4). blade angle

    3). slip

22. Exam 1 The flatter side (not cambered) of a propeller is termed the blade ______________. 1). Face 2). Back 3). Chord 4). Front

    1). Face Note: face because it is facing the pilot.

23. Exam 1 The force that tends to bend a propeller blade forward under high power settings is termed: ___________________________. 1). aerodynamic twisting force 2). torque bending force 3). centrifugal force 4). thrust bending force

    4). thrust bending force

24. Exam 1 On a SINGLE ENGINE general aviation aircraft, equipped with a constant speed propeller, engine oil pressure is needed to primarily overcome propeller dome spring pressure to__________ the prop blade angle. 1). increase 2). decrease

    1). increase Note: on multi engine, it is required that the blades go immediately to feathered (90 degrees) because, if an engine fails, asymmetric thrust can be minimized. Single engines, though, don't care as they don't worry about asymmetric thrust(?).

25. Exam 1 On an aircraft equipped with a constant speed propeller, pulling the cockpit prop control (blue handle) back with engine power set in the flight regime (MAP) will cause the propeller blade angle to _____________ and the prop RPM to ____________. 1). increase; increase 2). increase; decrease 3). decrease; decrease 4). decrease; increase

    2). increase; decrease Note: this is counter-intuitive, but pulling the blue lever actually increases blade angle. The increase in blade angle, with a static throttle setting, will decrease RPM because it is eating more into the air. Push in = more RPM (lower blade angle) Pull out = Less RPM (higher blade angle)

26. Exam 1 Which type of propeller will give an aircraft near optimal performance under all flight conditions? 1). fixed pitch propeller 2). ground adjustable 3). constant speed propeller 4). climb propeller

    3). constant speed propeller

27. Exam 1 There are good reasons to park the propeller in a certain position when securing the aircraft. (Not the ERAU policy for signaling a need for fuel!) This recommended ‘park’ position is: 1). 12 o'clock - 6 o'clock 2). 9 o'clock - 3 o'clock 3). 10 o'clock - 4 o'clock

    3). 10 o'clock - 4 o'clock Note: the reason is (as far as I know) because of birds, icing, and towing. If you had the prop at the 12 and 6 o'clock position (directly vertical), towing it and having it go down a slope could damage the prop. Having the blade angles on the 9 and 3 o'clock position, though, would have a higher chance for ice accumulation over time and birds may in-advertently start the engine by landing on the tips.

28. Exam 1 Is the propeller blade angle (fixed pitch propeller) smaller or larger at the blade tip? 1). smaller 2). larger

    1). smaller note: smallest at the tips, largest at the roots.

29. Exam 1 FUEL: What creates the low pressure at the fuel discharge nozzle of a float carburetor? 1). fuel pump 2). venturi 3). carburetor float 4). throttle valve

    2). venturi

30. Exam 1 The best and most accurate indication a pilot has of engine combustion efficiency is ______________ for most reciprocating engines. 1). Exhaust Gas Temperature 2). RPM 3). Fuel Flow 4). Cylinder Head Temperature

    1). Exhaust Gas Temperature

31. Exam 1 The most efficient propeller angle of attack (AOA) for achieving maximum efficiency is ________________. 1). large - approx. 25 degrees 2). medium - approx. 15 degrees 3). small - approx. 3 degrees

    3). small - approx. 3 degrees

32. Exam 1 When the fuel-air mixture in a cylinder reaches a certain pressure and temperature, it will explode in a destructive manner rather than burn evenly, and this explosion is known as _____________. A. detonation B. pre-ignition

    A. detonation

33. Exam 1 When first applying carb heat to an operating reciprocating engine (fixed pitch propeller), the engine rpm will ________ because of a change in the air density caused by the introduction of warm air. A. rise B. drop

    B. drop

34. Exam 1 When would it be proper to use carburetor heat while on the ground with the engine running? (Select all that apply.)\ 1). prior to shutting down an engine in very cold temperatures 2). when it's raining 3). OAT between -10 C and + 25 C 4). during engine starts and in very cold temperatures Note: you can select multiple answers.

    Answers: 1). prior to shutting down an engine in very cold temperatures 4). during engine starts and in very cold temperatures

35. Exam 1 Does the application of carburetor heat richen or lean the engine’s fuel mixture?

    Answer: richen

36. Exam 1 A fuel injected aircraft engine is more efficient than an engine with a carburetor due to: 1). higher engine operating temperature (EGT) 2). higher engine operating RPM 3). extremely high injection pressures 4). more precise/even distribution of fuel to each cylinder

    4). more precise/even distribution of fuel to each cylinder

37. Exam 1 POWER MANAGEMENT: A large amount of water vapor in the air will cause a significant reduction of power produced by reciprocating aircraft engines. True / False

    Answer: True

38. Exam 1 At a sea level airport with the engine not running, the manifold pressure (MAP) gauge(s) should indicate pressure equal to the _______________. A. 14.7 psi B. 29.92 in. Hg. C. 31.00 in. Hg. D. ambient atmospheric pressure

    D. ambient atmospheric pressure

39. Exam 1 Add or subtract 1 in. Hg. for each ___________ ft. of field elevation from the altimeter setting. This is termed the Altitude Effect. A. 100 B. 10 C. 1,000 D. 10,000

    C. 1,000

40. Exam 1 _______________ is the term used to describe the altitude where the throttle is fully open in order to achieve the desired power setting. The desired power setting cannot be maintained above this altitude. 1). Density altitude 2). Barometric altitude 3). Critical altitude 4). Pressure altitude 5). Service ceiling

    3). Critical altitude

41. Exam 1 When cruising at high power settings, a pilot can quickly and accurately tell the difference between pre-ignition and detonation in the cylinders of the engine by ___________. 1). EGT indications 2). the MAP indications 3). RPM indications 4). you can't tell by any of these 5). the sound

    4). you can't tell by any of these

42. Exam 1 As a general rule, when in cruise flight and applying engine power for a climb in an aircraft with a constant speed propeller, the _______________ should be adjusted/changed first. A. throttle B. propellor

    B. propellor Note: According to a definitely legitimate and 100% accurate forumn poster from 2016, you can use this memory aid: "The phrase that stuck with me from an instructor was 'Blue sky, black earth'. You want to climb up? Move the blue (sky colored) knob first. You want to descend to the ground? Move the black (earth) colored knob." - Fred Fenster TL;DR: Increasing power? BLUE FIRST. Decreasing power? BLACK FIRST.

43. Exam 1 Turning a propeller through by hand can be dangerous. Pilots should know the engine could start if there is a malfunction of the _____________. 1). throttle 2). mixture control 3). master switch 4). magneto switch/wiring

    4). magneto switch/wiring

44. Exam 1 The air pressure inside the crankcase (not in the cylinders!) of a reciprocating engine, for an aircraft in normal cruise flight, will be: ___________ 1). well above ambient pressure 2). well below ambient pressure 3). about equal to ambient pressure

    3). about equal to ambient pressure

45. Exam 1 TURBOCHARGING/SUPERCHARGING: Which engine performance-improving device is driven by engine exhaust? 1). supercharger 2). turbocharger 3). carburetor

    2). turbocharger

46. Exam 1 A waste gate is a component found on a reciprocating engine equipped with a ______________. 1). carburetor 2). supercharger 3). turbocharger 4). pressure carburetor

    3). turbocharger

47. Exam 1 Which component is used to decrease the high temperature of compressed air destined for the engine induction system and for combustion? This is needed on some engines to prevent detonation and/or pre-ignition. 1). radiator 2). intercooler 3). air cooler 4). waste gate

    2). intercooler

48. Exam 1 A condition in which MAP fluctuates after making a power change but doesn’t damage the engine is termed _____________. Note: not a normally aspirated engine! 1). over-torque 2). pre-ignition 3). bootstrapping 4). over-boost

    3). bootstrapping

49. Exam 1 Which device causes the loss of some engine horsepower/performance when operating due to the load it places on the engine? A. supercharger B. turbocharger

    A. supercharger

50. Exam 1 The turbocharger on an aircraft engine compresses _____________________. 1). fuel 2). air 3). fuel/air mixture

    2). air

51. Exam 2 Oxygen is a highly flammable gas that will ignite on immediate contact with any combustible fuel. True / False

    Answer: False Note: requires these three things

52. Exam 2 Which flight station crewmember oxygen regulator will provide maximum benefit to the wearer under all normal and emergency cabin flight conditions and altitudes? 1). continuous flow 2). pressure-demand 3). canula 4). full face mask

    2). pressure-demand

53. Exam 2 To keep humans alive at high altitudes in aircraft (select all that apply) 1). Enclose them in a pressurized environment 2). Increase the level of nitrogen 3). Provide them with more oxygen Note: there are multiple answers - choose multiple.

    Answers: 1). Enclose them in a pressurized environment 3). Provide them with more oxygen

54. Exam 2 Oxygen by itself is not a dangerous gas, but if it comes in contact with __________, it can lead to a very rapid, uncontrolled fire or explosion with the slightest source of ignition. 1). nitrogen 2). aluminum 3). isopropyl alcohol 4). any hydrocarbon

    4). any hydrocarbon

55. Exam 2 This system component which physically meters the 'controlled leakage' of air leaving the cabin of a pressurized aircraft during normal operation of the pressurization system is the __________. 1). negative pressure relief valve 2). outflow valve 3). positive pressure relief valve 4). heat exchanger

    2). outflow valve

56. Exam 2 The international color code for oxygen equipment is: 1). orange 2). grey 3). green 4). red

    3). green

57. Exam 2 In virtually all modern turbo-fan powered jetliners, the primary source of air used for air conditioning and pressurizing the cockpit and cabin is ______________: 1). air from the turbine engine’s turbine section 2). re-circulated air from inside the cabin 3). engine compressor bleed air 4). engine combustion section

    3). engine compressor bleed air

58. Exam 2 The pressurization level of the cabin of an aircraft is typically measured as: 1). PSIG (gauge) 2). PSIA (absolute) 3). PSID (differential)

    3). PSID (differential)

59. Exam 2 The cabin pressure controller in the flight station provides direct electrical control inputs to the aircraft’s outflow valve(s) plus the positive and negative pressure safety relief valves. True / False

    Answer: False Note: as far as I know, we (or the controller) only control the outflow valves.

60. Exam 2 A commercial airliner is passing through 30,000 ft. while climbing to 39,000 ft. at 1500 feet per minute. The pilots notice that the cabin pressurization vertical speed indicator (VSI) is also indicating a climb at a rate of nearly 1500 feet per minute. This indicates to the crew that the pressurization system is likely operating in the _________ range of operation. 1). pressure differential 2). safety relief 3). isobaric 4). diluter-demand

    1). pressure differential

61. Exam 2 Once properly programmed by the crew, a typical transport aircraft’s cabin pressure controller will have the ability to function automatically in the following mode/modes of control or operation for the entire flight: 1). safety relief 2). unpressurized and positive pressure 3). multi-baric 4). isobaric and pressure differential

    4). isobaric and pressure differential

62. Exam 2 The flow of electrons is termed _________. 1). current 2). voltage 3). amperage 4). electricity

63. Exam 2 In an electrical circuit, electrons flow from (electron flow theory): 1). positive to negative 2). negative to positive 3). positive to positive 4). negative to negative

    2). negative to positive

64. Exam 2 Electrical current is measured and expressed as _________. 1). watts 2). amperage 3). voltage 4). ohms

    2). amperage

65. Exam 2 Another name for electromotive force (EMF) is ___________. 1). watts 2). voltage 3). current 4). amperage

66. Exam 2 There are two types of electricity, they are __________ and __________. 1). series and parallel 2). AC and DC 3). inductive and magnetic 4). current and static

    4). current and static

67. Exam 2 Electrical circuit and electrical component resistance values are expressed in _________. 1). ohms 2). volts 3). watts 4). amps

    1). ohms

68. Exam 2 If two points in an electrical circuit have 10 amps and 12 ohms, how many volts are in the circuit? (Hint! Ohm’s Law) A. 120 B. 10 C. 12 D. 1.2 True / False

    Answer: A. 120

69. Exam 2 Hertz (abbreviation Hz) is used to state __________. 1). frequency/cycles per second 2). ohms 3). watts 4). amps

    1). frequency/cycles per second

70. Exam 2 A nickel-cadmium battery stores _________ current. 1). alternating 2). static 3). positive 4). direct

    4). direct

71. Exam 2 This electrical system component is used to vary resistance in a circuit. 1). rheostat 2). inverter 3). transformer 4). voltage regulator

    1). rheostat

72. Exam 2 Which of the following is a correct formula for Ohm's Law? 1). I = E x R 2). R = I x E 3). E = I x R 4). P = I x E x R

    3). E = I x R Note: E = Voltage I = Amperage (Current) R = Resistance

73. Exam 2 Hz is a value related to ___________ current. 1). DC 2). static 3). AC and DC 4). AC

    4). AC

74. Exam 2 Thermal runaway is a phenomenon that can cause so much heat that the battery may explode or melt its way out through the bottom of the aircraft. What kind of common aircraft battery is susceptible to this? 1). lead acid 2). primary cell 3). nickel-cadmium 4). alkaline cell

    3). nickel-cadmium

75. Exam 2 The capacity of a battery is a measure of its ability to produce a given amount of electrical output for a specified time. This is typically expressed as ________________. 1). volt-hours (Vh) 2). ampere-hours (Ah) 3). effective performance time (EPT) 4). tachometer time

    2). ampere-hours (Ah)

76. Exam 2 This common type of aircraft battery is capable of rapidly recharging and discharging without an associated voltage drop until near total depletion, it also recharges quickly. 1). mercury cell 2). primary cell 3). nickel-cadmium (Nicad) 4). lead acid

    3). nickel-cadmium (Nicad)

77. Exam 2 The best way to extinguish a thermal runaway fire is to use: 1). a halon fire extinguisher 2). ice 3). a water extinguisher 4). a blanket

    3). a water extinguisher

78. Exam 2 Excessive ________ will cause a circuit breaker to trip/pop or a fuse to blow, thus protecting an electrical circuit or component. 1). voltage 2). amperage 3). resistance 4). watts

    2). amperage

79. Exam 2 A __________ is a device used to convert AC to DC. 1). inverter 2). transformer 3). resistor 4). rectifier

    4). rectifier

80. Exam 2 A device which limits electron flow to one direction in a circuit is a ____________. 1). armature 2). fuse 3). capacitor 4). diode

    4). diode

81. Exam 2 A ___________ is used to step up or step-down voltage. 1). relay 2). transformer 3). inverter 4). rectifier

    2). transformer

82. Exam 2 Match the following terms by typing in the number of the answer. A = 5 B = 3 C = 6 D = 1 E = 4

    Note: In order to "match" the answers, just type in the associated number from this side to the little boxes you see on the right of the definition. The correct answer will be flashed in green. (1) Source of AC (2) Source of DC (not a battery) (3) Battery (4) Fuse (5) Ground (6) Circuit Breaker (non-pull type) (7) Circuit Breaker (pull type)

83. Exam 2 On the aircraft you fly, what causes the alternator magnets to turn, causing the generation of electricity? 1). the engine turns them mechanically, through gears, like the vacuum pump 2). ambient air from the forward speed of the aircraft in flight 3). the engine turns them by using a belt, similar to a fan belt on a automobile 4). an electric motor, controlled by the voltage regulator turns the alternator

    3). the engine turns them by using a belt, similar to a fan belt on a automobile

84. Exam 2 What is the only electrical system in a light aircraft (reciprocating engine) that is not protected by a fuse or circuit breaker? 1). dome light 2). pitot heat 3). turn coordinator 4). engine starter

    4). engine starter

85. Exam 2 The electrical generating device which has a fixed armature and rotating magnets is: 1). generator 2). alternator

    2). Alternator Note: regular generators (DC) will always have a movable rotating armature - armature being the coil assembly.

86. Exam 2 What electrical component(s) or system is associated to the electrical term ‘P Lead’ in a light aircraft with a reciprocating engine? 1). battery 2). voltage regulator 3). alternator 4). ignition switch

    4). ignition switch

87. Exam 2 The output of an aircraft engine magneto is: 1). both AC and DC 2). AC 3). DC 4). Static Electricity

    2). AC Note: Magnetos are just fancier specialized AC generators (moveable magnet, fixed armature).

88. Exam 2 What type of circuit is this? 1). high voltage / DC 2). series / DC 3). parallel / AC 4). low voltage / AC

    2). series / DC

89. Exam 2 The name of the direct current (DC) electrical system component which is capable of producing aircraft system alternating current (AC) is ___________. 1). transformer-rectifier 2). solenoid 3). rectifier 4). inverter

    4). inverter

90. Exam 2 What type of circuit is this? 1). series / DC 2). parallel / AC 3). parallel / DC 4). series / AC

    2). parallel / AC

91. Exam 2 A component which stores current for use as a sudden discharge for devices such as for aircraft strobe lights or starting a large electrical motor is a __________. 1). light emitting diode 2). capacitor 3). transistor 4). resistor

    2). capacitor

92. Exam 2 In a series circuit with 2 light bulbs, if one of the light bulbs breaks, what will happen to the other light bulb: 1). It will continue to light 2). It will be brighter 3). It will be dimmer 4). It will turn off

    4). It will turn off

93. Exam 2 A transformer-rectifier is used in electrical circuits to change _______ and to convert______ to ______. 1). voltage; AC to DC 2). amperage; DC to AC 3). amperage; AC to DC 4). voltage; DC to AC

    1). voltage; AC to DC Note: transformer part steps up/down voltage, that rectifier bit only converts AC to DC current.

94. Exam 2 The number stamped on the face of a circuit breaker represents what value? 1). Voltage 2). Amps 3). Ohms 4). Watts

    2). Amps

95. Exam 2 What governs the current output of a generator? 1). the speed at which the conductors cut the lines of flux 2). all of the above combine to govern current output 3). number of lines of magnetic flux 4). number of conductors cutting the lines of flux

    2). all of the above combine to govern current output Note: basically, the rotation speed, magnet strength, and amount of copper wires govern current output.

96. Exam 2 Which flight station indicator/instrument shows the crew whether the battery is charging or discharging? 1). galvanometer 2). I don’t know! 3). volt meter 4). ammeter

    4). ammeter

97. Exam 2 A bonding strap is commonly used in aircraft to ‘electrically’ connect a __________ and a ____________. 1). generator and a bus bar 2). transformer and a rectifier 3). aircraft structure and a flight control surface 4). relay and a solenoid

    3). aircraft structure and a flight control surface

98. Exam 3 Hydraulics & Pneumatics: The primary difference between hydraulics and pneumatics is: 1). the type of medium used in the lines 2). aircraft pneumatic systems are only used as ‘back up’ or emergency systems 3). the number and number of system components needed 4). pneumatic (what's in the lines) systems are more reliable 5). hydraulic (what's in the lines) systems use higher operating pressures

    1). the type of medium used in the lines

99. Exam 3 The most common seal used in today’s hydraulic system (hint: used between parts with relative motion) is the ___________. 1). o gasket 2). o ring 3). o no 4). compression ring 5). clamp 6). fuse

    2). o ring

100. Exam 3 The color of the hydraulic fluid that is most flammable is 1). red 2). blue 3). purple or green 4). clear 5). jokes on you, color is a government conspiracy

     1). red