Livestock Management

99 flashcards · Other · by Emma Yarbrough

Average gestation of continental cattle breeds
285-286
Average gestation of Brahman cattle
290
Signs of calving:
red, swollen vulva show expulsion of water sac become separated from her turn head towards flank have a full, tight udder
Manual assistance should be give if cow has not calved in _____ after she first starts the abdominal presses
an hour
Calving intervention is needed when:
process is taking too long the calf is in trouble (tongue or head swollen) rectal bleeding from heifer/cow heifer/cow quits trying to push calf out detect that the calf is coming in an abnormal presentation
Calving ease score 1:
no difficulty; no assistance
Calving ease score 2:
minor difficulty; some assistance
Calving ease score 3:
major difficulty; usually mechanical assistance
Calving ease score 4:
caesarean section or other surgery
Calving ease score 5:
abnormal presentation
Calf scours:
associated with several diseases characterized by diarrhea the scouring calf becomes dehydrated and suffers from electrolyte loss and acidosis
What is the best form of permanent ID for pigs?
ear notches
When weaning pigs during class, the piglets were given an Ivomec injection. How was this injection administered?
Subcutaneous
The Circumvent vaccine (porcine circovirus) was administered ________
in the muscle.
Pigs are usually weaned as ____ days old.
21
Identify the swine breed.
Duroc
Identify this swine breed.
Yorkshire
What is normal fetal presentation at parturition?
front hooves first, then nose
What is the number one cause of calf loss prior to weaning?
Dystocia
T of F: Heifer calves are usually heavier than bull calved
False
List the equipment that you should have on hand in preparation for calving season.
calf jack, OB pullers, OB chains, weigh tape, scales
What predator can attack cows during calving and severely injure or kill calves during delivery?
Buzzard
Calf scours can be caused by:
bacteria, viruses, protozoan parasites, yeasts and molds
Which of the following factors affects dystocia? sex of calf, calf birth weight, breed of sire
all of these
List some favorite foods for goats:
blackberry poison ivy Kudzu poison oak sunflower
Lambs have __ pairs of narrow lower incisors called milk teeth
4
Signs of parasitism in goats:
loss of condition rough hair coat bottle jaw (edema) low energy loss of appetite reduced reproductive performance anemia
_______ is a system for detecting anemia caused by parasites in goats
FAMACHA
Where did we administer subcutaneous injections to the goats during class?
the elbow pocket
Based on this mouth, what is the expected age of this sheep?
1 year
How can foot rot be treated?
trim hoof wall to the quick soak in formalin or zinc sulfate remove animals from moist soil conditions apply Coppertox
T or F: Sheep and goats have monogastric digestive systems.
False
T or F: Body condition scores for goats range from 1 to 5
True
Which disease results in kidney stones/blockage of urinary tract and is more common in high grain, low forage diets and diets with mineral imbalances?
Urinary Calculi
T or F: Boer goats of naturally polled.
False
Meat goats are vulnerable to which common internal parasites?
barberpole worm and brown stomach worm
Are triplets desirable in sheep and goat production?
no
What is the FAMACHA System used to assess?
Anemia
Based on this mouth, what is the expected age of this sheep?
2 years
Goat breed that originated in New Zealand; most commonly white, though other colors are found
Kiko
Goat breed developed in South Africa and now most popular meat breed in the US; most commonly white bodies with red/brown heads; the name is derived from the Dutch word for "farmer"
Boer
Fast growing breed of hair sheep; known for heavy muscling and fast growth rates. Can be solid white or black-headed
Suffolk
Popular fine wool breed of sheep. Large frame size; have black hair on face and legs, roman nosed, and good breed to cross with Hampshire
Dorper
When deworming a sheep or goat, what is the most common route of administration?
oral
Enterotoxemia, over eating disease, is a common disease that is largely preventable by vaccination and is caused by
Clostridium perfringens Type C & D
T or F: The best way to assess parasite load in a goat is through a fecal egg count test.
True
Which parasite causes the most serious threat to goats?
Haemonchus contortus (barberpole worm)
Which disease is caused by a prion protein and has no cure or vaccine?
Scrapie
Advantages of AI:
use of outstanding bulls to optimize genetic improvement control reproductive diseases less injury to animals extends productive life of older sires can ship anywhere, breed long distance inexpensive for most species
Disadvantages of AI:
estrus detection must be good; increased intensive management need trained inseminator need adequate animal handling facilities
Natural cover: 1 bull sires _____/yr for 3-8 years = _____ lifetime
40-50 calves = 400 calves in lifetime
Artificial insemination: 1 bull produces ___ - ___units of semen/week; 1.5 units per calf = _________ calves in lifetime
200-400 units = 500,000 calves in lifetime
Signs of heat in cattle:
standing to be mounted (by other females) restlessness (increased locomotion) riding other females increased vocalization dirty flanks licking tail head of other females (wet tail head)
Heat detection aids:
tail head markers electronic indicators locomotion indicators
Time of insemination should occur ____ hours prior to ovulation
6-8
Prostaglandin:
prevents expression of heat and ovulation; destroys the CL
Cows in estrus are most likely to display heat behavior during which time period?
midnight to 6 am
How long are sperm cells viable in the female reproductive tract?
24-30 hours
T or F: Ideal insemination time is 6-8 hours prior to ovulation
True
Where is semen deposited during artificial insemination?
uterine body
What hormone is a CIDR responsible for releasing when used as the first step of an estrous synchronization protocol?
Progesterone
Which estrous sync method achieves the highest pregnancy rates?
CIDR followed by prostaglandin injection
T or F: Pregnancy rates from sexed semen are lower than that of traditional AI breeding
True
Semen straws are stored/preserved in __________
liquid nitrogen
T or F: The volume of bull semen in a straw is usually 1/2 or 1/4 cc (ml).
true
Where is semen deposited in AI?
Uterus
The estrous cycle for cattle is approximately ___ days
21
Define Estrus:
"In heat." Receptive to mounting.
List one example of a heat detection aid.
Heat patch
How cold is liquid nitrogen?
-320*F
Heifers should be bred to have their first calf at what age?
1 year
The CIDR insert used for estrous synchronization is placed where?
vagina
Post partum interval (PPI):
period from calving to return of estrus 0 needs to be less than 80 days (for 12-month calving interval)
During class, we dewormed the beef calves with what type of product?
topical/pour on
Identify.
Ear tag
list 2-3 important items/equipment needed for freeze branding:
99% isopropyl alcohol dry ice
which needle size (gauge and length) would be most appropriate to administer a subcutaneous injection to beef or dairy calves?
18 gauge; 3/4 inch
what is the preferred cow:bull ratio for a mature bull in a pasture mating system?
26-1
When selecting a bull to breed to heifers, what EPD's are of greatest importance?
birth weight and calving ease
What characteristics are important when selecting a breeding heifer in the beef cattle industry?
pelvic width and depth EPD's for milk production structural correctness
T of F: The preferred body condition score of a beef breeding heifer is 5-6
true
Postpartum interval (PPI) needs to be less than ___ days in order for a cow to stay on a 12-month calving interval.
80
Body condition score influences:
postpartum interval pregnancy percentage calf crop percentage calf weaning weights
The minimal scrotal circumference measurement for a 2 year old bull in order to pass a breeding soundness exam is ____ cm.
34
The semen motility (movement) needs to be at least ___% for a bull to pass the breeding soundness exam.
30
t or f: freeze branding is an example of temporary identification method
false
when freeze branding using the dry ice method, how long should the brand be applied to the skin?
1 minute
T or F: The predominant breed of calves that we worked during class was Angus.
true
How would you describe the temperament (disposition) of the calves that we worked during class this week?
A little restless but it was their first time in the chute
Beef cattle should be vaccinated in what location on the body (preferred location for IM and SQ injections)?
neck
Cow to yearling bull ratio:
18 cows: 1 bull
cow to mature bull ratio
26 cows: 1 bull
typical cow to bull ratio used in industry:
30 cows: 1 bull
Breeding soundness exam:
30-60 days prior to breeding season physical exam -- rectal palpation to examine reproductive system scrotal circumference measurement semen evaluation
The sperm morphology needs to be at least ___% normal for a bull to pass the breeding soundness exam.
70%
The minimal scrotal circumference measurement for a <15 month-old bull in order to pass a breeding soundness exam is ____ cm.
30 cm
The minimal scrotal circumference measurement for a 15-18 month old bull in order to pass a breeding soundness exam is ____ cm.
31
The minimal scrotal circumference measurement for a 18-21 mo. bull in order to pass a breeding soundness exam is ____ cm.
32
The minimal scrotal circumference measurement for a 21-24 mo. bull in order to pass a breeding soundness exam is ____ cm.
33 cm