AS 321 : Stage 3 Quizzes

101 flashcards · Other · by Nicholas Enoul

The DA42's landing gear Folding Stay... A. Straightens the gear after takeoff B. Secures the Gear in the Down position C. Secures the Gear in the Up position
B. Secures the Gear in the Down position
The Red Gear Unsafe light turns OFF when... A. Gear Fire/Test button is pressed B. When all three up position switches or all four down position switches are contacted C. Both Main Gear Down position switches are contacted
B. When all three up position switches or all four down position switches are contacted Note: there are 10 total switches. 4 in the nose gear (2 down position, 1 down, 1 full pressure) 3 in each main gear (1 down, 1 up, 1 squat)
In a DA42, What is the purpose of the variable elevator backstop? A. An electric servo moves the elevator trim tab up to aerodynamically limit the maximum pitch-up attitude B. Reduces power output by 20% C. The ECU electronically limits how far the airplane can pitch up during rotation to prevent a stall. D. Backstop is intended to limit elevator movement to prevent excessive pitch attitudes.
D. Backstop is intended to limit elevator movement to prevent excessive pitch attitudes.
While in flight (multiengine aircraft), you pull the power levers aft to reduce the power setting (% load) and notice that the RPM has also decreased. How have the propeller blades' angle changed during this power reduction to cause the decrease in RPM? A. The blades move to a higher angle of attack B. The blade angle will not change C. The blades move to a lower angle of attack
A. The blades move to a higher angle of attack
In a DA42, You move the right fuel selector on to "crossfeed", which direction does fuel flow? (from what tank to which engine?) A. Left Engine to Right Tank B. Right Tank to Right Engine C. Right Tank to Left Engine D. Left Tank to Right Engine
D. Left Tank to Right Engine Note: when you switch to crossfeed, the engine will draw from both fuel tanks.
What is true about the turbocharging system in the DA42? A. The intercooler cools the compressed air before it sends it to the cylinders B. The compressor is run electrically C. It is used to pressurize the cabin
A. The intercooler cools the compressed air before it sends it to the cylinders
Select the most true statement about the DA42's brake system A. Does not have a parking brake B. Uses green brake fluid C. Single Pilot Ops only permitted from the Left Seat
C. Single Pilot Ops only permitted from the Left Seat Note: this is because the right seat's brakes are piggybacking off the left brake lines (i.e., connected to the left seat brakes instead of directly to the hydraulics systems). Because of this, as far as I understand it, it adds another point of failure and not being as hydraulically strong when compared to the left set of brake lines.
The DA42 has stall heat because compared to the C172 it A. Cannot be approved for flight in icing conditions B. Tends to have stall heat failures C. Can be approved for flight in icing conditions
C. Can be approved for flight in icing conditions
A descent is initiated from straight and level flight without adjusting the power levers. Which step will allow the governor to maintain constant RPM? A. The hub spring expands which pushes the propeller into a higher pitch and decreases RPM. B. The pilot valve allows oil to enter the hub (governor) which increases oil pressure in the hub. C. The hub spring is compressed which pushes the propeller into a higher pitch and decreases RPM.
A. The hub spring expands which pushes the propeller into a higher pitch and decreases RPM. Note: High pitch = Low RPM
What is true about the 4 stroke diesel engine? A. Spark plugs warm the cylinders before starting the engine B. The exhaust gas runs the cabin heating system C. Compression ignites the fuel when the engine is running
C. Compression ignites the fuel when the engine is running
In the DA42, What happens when both power levers are advanced to a setting that is greater than 20% during the takeoff roll? A. The ECU electronically limits how far the airplane can pitch up during rotation to prevent a stall. B. The waste gate closes to increase takeoff power. C. The variable elevator backstop physically limits how far the stick can be pulled back.
C. The variable elevator backstop physically limits how far the stick can be pulled back.
What is the purpose for this switch? A. Fires the ejection seat B. Provides power to the standby attitude indicator and map light C. Provides 30 minutes of emergency engine power in the event of a total electrical failure
B. Provides power to the standby attitude indicator and map light Note: NOT this :( 1.5 hrs for stby attitude and map light
What is the purpose for the voter switch? A. Choose which ECU is active B. Turn on the standby high pressure fuel pump C. Force both ECUs to operate at the same time
A. Choose which ECU is active
In a multiengine aircraft, What statement is true regarding the fluid that is used to counter the spring pressure inside the propeller hub? A. The hub (governor) oil system is separate from the engine oil system. B. The hub (governor) oil system is integrated with the hydraulic brake system but shares only the reservoir. C. The hub (governor) oil system is integrated with the landing gear hydraulic system but shares only the reservoir and pump.
A. The hub (governor) oil system is separate from the engine oil system.
In a DA42, the total number of Fuel Pumps is A. 6 B. 3 C. 4 D. 8
D. 8 Note: below is the breakdown. 2 total High Pressure Pumps 4 total Low Pressure Pumps (1 per ECU) 2 total Auxiliary Pumps
What will cause the red “gear unsafe” light to shut off? A. At least one Up or Down position switch in contact B. All three Up or all four Down position switches in contact C. Left main squat switch in contact D. Right main squat switch in contact
B. All three Up or all four Down position switches in contact Note: there are 10 total switches. 4 in the nose gear (2 down position, 1 down, 1 full pressure) 3 in each main gear (1 down, 1 up, 1 squat)
What will happen if the high pressure fuel pump fails on the left engine in-flight? A. The left engine will fail. B. The ECU will turn on the second high pressure fuel pump in the left engine and the engine will continue operating normally. C. The pilot can turn on the electronic high pressure fuel pump for the left engine and the engine will continue operating normally.
A. The left engine will fail. Note: there is only 1 high pressure pump per engine. The pump is meant to push fuel into the cylinders during the peak of the compression cycle. If the high pressure pump fails, fuel can no longer be pushed into the cylinders. 2 total High Pressure Pumps 4 total Low Pressure Pumps (1 per ECU) 2 total Auxiliary Pumps
How does a diesel engine heat the cylinders before the engine is started? A. Spark Plugs B. Glow plugs C. Glow Disks D. Afterburner
B. Glow plugs NOT this sadly :(
The DA42's max Froward and Aft Limits are approximately how many inches apart? A. 1.8 inches B. 1 inch C. 0.05 meters D. 1.5 meters
A. 1.8 inches
Increased Density Altitude decreases power available. (True/False)
Answer: True
In OEI operations, Performance is defined as the ability A. maintain altitude B. to Climb C. to remain above Vmc
B. to Climb Note: performance literally means an aircraft's ability to climb, while Control (as far as I know) comes from ability to maintain altitude(???) and mainly directional control.
The DA42 Max Landing Mass is adjusted by MAM 42-678 (True/False)
Answer: False Note: this is because, from my guess, is because MAM 42-678 affects maximum take-off mass. It is MAM 42-659 that affects max Landing mass.
In a DA42, You are in flight and notice that the left tank has 15g and the right tank has 21g, which action is least likely to result in exceeding a manufacturer limitation? A. Pull right fuel selector to cross feed B. Pull left fuel selector to OFF setting C. Pull left fuel selector to cross feed
C. Pull left fuel selector to cross feed Note: by doing this, the left engine will feed from both the right and left tanks. If you placed it in the "off" position, I am pretty sure you just kill the engine.
How do you calculate accelerate-stop distance? A. Short Field Over 50 ft equates to Accelerate Stop Distance B. Takeoff Ground roll + Takeoff over 50ft + landing ground roll C. Short field Landing ground roll + landing abnormal flap setting ground roll D. Normal Takeoff Ground roll + Normal Landing Ground roll
D. Normal Takeoff Ground roll + Normal Landing Ground roll
The DA42 has MAM 42-678 carried out which increases MTOM. This helps with increasing maneuverability in OEI operations. (True/False)
Answer: True Note: my understanding of this is that, since you have a greater weight, there is just that much more mass to counteract your asymmetric roll/thrust. However, I will need to double check this with the instructor Another consideration is that 42-678 does directly increase MTOM.
The red radial on the airspeed indicator signifies… A. VYSE B. Published VMC C. Actual VMC on current conditions
B. Published VMC Note: I believe this is referring to the first red radial, not the last one (being VNE)
In the DA42, a limitation on the Emergency Gear Extension Handle is A. To operate only below 133 KIAS B. To operate only below 188 KIAS C. To operate only below 152 KIAS
C. To operate only below 152 KIAS
Use Image 1, Image 2, and the following information to calculate the accelerate-stop distance in feet. Aircraft Weight: 3700 lbs. Pressure Altitude: 6000 ft. Temperature: 10ºC A. 3313 ft B. 1010 m C. 3312 m D. 1010 ft
A. 3313 ft (an attempt at an explanation) Note: the main goal is to add your takeoff ground roll + landing ground roll. \\ use this formula/concept: \\ looking at charts, should be this: 600 meters + 410 meters = 1010 meters \\ now, notice the note on the bottom for conversion into feet. 1010 meters * 3.28 = 3,312.8 feet
The maximum weight in the DA42's short baggage extension is A. 66 kg B. 33 kg C. 33 lb D. 66 lb
C. 33 lb Note: initially, I confused this for nose baggage compartment weight limitation (being 66lb or 30 kg). I couldn't find the reference to this, other than in the AFM in a couple of spots. It looks like it is an OAM optional thing that can be installed per p. 21. However, consider that the answer can also be drawn from another question with the chart that literally tells you the maximum weights (see the bottom): Note 2: I think I found the reference. In AFM p. 80 we can see the actual ext…
VSSE is defined as... A. Single-Engine Instrument Approach Speed B. Single-Engine Stall Speed C. Safe Single-Engine Speed
C. Safe Single-Engine Speed Note: the difference between this VMC seems to be based on performance and intentionality. Per the FAA Airplane Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-3C), the definition is the following - "VSSE —safe, intentional OEI speed—originally known as safe single-engine speed. It is the minimum speed to intentionally render the critical engine inoperative." With this in mind, it seems that this airspeed is meant for training situations rather than emergencies. However, consider also t…
To fit in the RACC Unit in the DA42, which MAM or OAM change was carried out? A. OAM 42-659 B. MAM 42-678 C. OAM 42-207
C. OAM 42-207 Note: I am not quite sure how to get around the answer here. First off, according to the AFM does not seem to directly reference a "RACC" unit. However, after looking around, it seems to relate to the Air Conditioning system. However, I could not find any conclusive information and will verify with prof.
*(Select all that Apply)* Service Ceiling is defined as the highest altitude an airplane can maintain a A. 100 fpm climb with AEO B. 50 fpm climb with AEO C. 100 fpm climb with OEI D. 50 fpm climb with OEI
Answers: A. 100 fpm climb with AEO D. 50 fpm climb with OEI
*(Select all that Apply)* Total Empty Mass in the DA42 includes what? A. Unusable fuel in main tanks B. Brake Fluid C. Gearbox Oil D. Survival Kit E. Ballast
Answers: A. Unusable fuel in main tanks B. Brake Fluid C. Gearbox Oil
When filling in a W&B form, the maximum fuel in main tanks in the DA42 figure would be how many pounds (lbs) of fuel? A. 350 lbs B. 348 lbs C. 335 lbs D.364 lbs
A. 350 lbs Note: this is a pretty simple process. \\ we know the total fuel available in a DA42 25 gallons useable per tank 50 total \\ multiply this by the weight of Jet-A 50*7.01 = 350.5
What is the first indication you are approaching/exceeding VMC and how should a pilot respond? A. You roll and yaw into the dead engine and the rudder is at its max deflection. You should reduce power on operating engine and lower pitch B. You roll and yaw to the operating engine, you should conduct CPDIVE C. You roll and yaw into the dead engine and the aileron is at its max deflection. You should reduce power on the dead engine and lower pitch D. You hear the stall horn, you should increase p…
A. You roll and yaw into the dead engine and the rudder is at its max deflection. You should reduce power on operating engine and lower pitch
In a conventional prop airplane, why is the left engine the critical engine? *(Select all that Apply)* A. Downward moving blade on the right engine has a longer arm relative to left engine, which increases the moment of Pfactor B. Downward moving blade on the left engine has a shorter arm relative to right engine, which increases the moment of Pfactor C. Torque on the right engine is stronger than the left engine D. Torque counteracts rolling moment from the left engine if the right engine has…
Answers: A. Downward moving blade on the right engine has a longer arm relative to left engine, which increases the moment of Pfactor D. Torque counteracts rolling moment from the left engine if the right engine has failed
What forces are acting on the propeller? A. Aerodynamic twisting force is moving the prop to low pitch/low rpm and cannot be controlled by pilot B. Counterweights move prop to high pitch/low rpm C. Increasing oil in the hub spring moves prop to high pitch/low rpm
B. Counterweights move prop to high pitch/low rpm
*(Select all that Apply)* In § 23.2135 Controllability (NOT § 25.149 Minimum control speed) the FAA requires that the airplane... (1). Must be controllable and maneuverable (2) Without requiring exceptional piloting skill, alertness, or strength (3) propeller of the inoperative engine is windmilling. (4) is trimmed for takeoff
Answers: (1). Must be controllable and maneuverable (2) Without requiring exceptional piloting skill, alertness, or strength ---------- Note: 23.2135 is a regulation not isn't specific to VMC or multi-engine aircraft. Rather, it seems to be more about general controllability of all aircraft. The main points of it are as follows: \\ (a) The airplane must be controllable and maneuverable, without requiring exceptional piloting skill, alertness, or strength, within the operating envelope.... \\ (c…
Considering only the DA42, What is true regarding multi engine turning tendencies. A. Accelerated slipstream on right wing causes a roll to the left B. Accelerated slipstream will cause a yawing moment C. The torque effect on the left and right engine cancel eachother out D. P-factor on the right engine creates a yawing motion towards the right
A. Accelerated slipstream on right wing causes a roll to the left Notes: even though (A) does not specifically apply to the DA42, it probably makes the most sense. \\ (B) does not have enough information (and even then, it is more of a rolling moment). \\ (C) torque effect does not cancel each other out - blades rotate in the same direction. \\ (D) would only make sense if it said the yawing motion would be to the left, not the right.
What can a pilot do to decrease actual VMC? A. Move CG forward B. Fail the critical engine C. Keep the prop windmilling D. Put up the landing gear
A. Move CG forward Note: even though the pilot cannot really move the CG mid-flight, the answer makes the most sense. The rest of the options either increase actual VMC.
Why is the left engine the critical engine? (NOTE: choose multiple answers if applicable) (1) It causes the weakest yaw and roll when it is operating. (2) It causes the strongest yaw and roll when it is operating. (3) It has the greatest moment arm.
Answers: (1) It causes the weakest yaw and roll when it is operating.
In AEO operations of a conventional propeller airplane, Accelerated Slipstream & Torque cause a..... *(consider the arms of the force from the CG and its resulting motion)* A. Roll-Left B. Roll-Right C. Yaw-Left D. Yaw-Right
A. Roll-Left Note: in theory, there is likely a yawing moment created due to both of these forces (primarily accelerated slip stream in a climbing turn). However, that would only be because of the rolling tendency created from those forces (total lift now split to horizontal and vertical components, yada yada). With this in mind, I believe that these forces predominantly cause a rolling tendency (which makes more sense with torque effect).
In OEI operations in a conventional propeller airplane, Accelerated Slipstream a RH Engine failure will cause... *(consider the arms of the force from the CG and its resulting motion)* A. Roll-Right B. Roll-Left C. Yaw-Right D. Yaw-Left
A. Roll-Right Note: since this is specifically in reference to accelerated slip stream, and since the operating engine is on the left of CG, this would create a right rolling tendency.
You calculate the CG to be at the station indicated by the blue circle. Will this CG location cause VMC to be higher than, lower than, or the same as the location indicated by the red triangle? A. VMC will be lower B. VMC will be higher C. Only lateral CG position affects VMC
A. VMC will be lower Note: this is because the CG is further forward, meaning more moment arm for your vertical stabilizer and rudder.
In most multi-engine aircraft, T-tail design reduces... A. Pitch up tendency B. Pitch down tendency C. Yawing towards inop engine D. Rolling towards inop engine
A. Pitch-up tendency
Published VMC is established with A. No exceptional piloting skill, alertness, or strength B. Indicated Airspeed C. No more than 20° bank
A. No exceptional piloting skill, alertness, or strength
Extending the landing gear__________ actual VMC A. Decrease B. Increase
A. Decrease Note: the reason is because the landing gear helps with stability around the vertical (yaw) axis. Supposedly this is because of the "keel" effect. Basically, the lower the CG relative to the wing, the better stability. However, just know that this is supposedly debatable, but I am not really sure what the other argument is (potentially that the gear acts as uniform form drag, thus creating areas of static pressure \ or that the gears themselves swivel and counteract the instability.…
According to § 23.2135, if the RH engine fails (compared to the LH engine), feathering prop could result in increasing VMC to above the blue radial line. (True/False)
Answer: False Note: I am pretty sure that feathering would just decrease VMC. 14 CFR 23.2135 makes no mention to feathering engines, as it is related to general controllability for all aircraft.
Which of the following pilot actions has the greatest effect of decreasing VMC A. Reduce power on operating engine B. Put landing gear down C. Put landing gear and flaps up D. Feather the prop
A. Reduce power on operating engine
Primary cause of losing control in OEI operations is... A. Asymmetrical Thrust & Drag B. Aerodynamic Paddles correcting for adverse yaw C. Yaw Dampers engaging because of ESP
A. Asymmetrical Thrust & Drag
Considering only conventional prop multiengine aircraft, what statement is true regarding multi-engine turning tendencies? **Consider the total effect of both engines** A. Total torque will cause the airplane to roll to the left. B. Total p-factor will cause the airplane to roll to the left. C. Total accelerated slipstream will cause the airplane to yaw to the left.
A. Total torque will cause the airplane to roll to the left. Note: p-factor causes more of a yawing tendency, while accelerated slipstream is more of a rolling one. This leaves (A) to be the most correct out of all of them.
If you calculated all engine climb performance to be 1,000ft per min. What is a reasonable single engine climb performance for most multiengine aircraft? A. 200 fpm B. 800 fpm C. 500 fpm D. 700 fpm
A. 200 fpm Note: This is because you will generally experience an 80% loss of total performance in OEI scenarios for any given multiengine aircraft.
The right engine fails during an IFR flight. You increase pitch to maintain the MEA on the victor airway. As you increase pitch, the airplane begins to yaw and roll to the right even though you have full rudder deflection to the left. What is happening and what is the best pilot action? A.I am entering a Vmc roll. I must reduce power on the left engine and pitch down. B. The airplane will naturally roll and yaw towards the inoperative engine. No action is required. C. I am entering a Vmc roll.…
A.I am entering a Vmc roll. I must reduce power on the left engine and pitch down.
The first action a pilot should take after an engine failure in flight is... A. Regain directional control B. Get flaps and gear up C. Increase power D. Feather the dead engine
A. Regain directional control
When an engine fails in a multi-engine airplane, the Recovery steps include... *(Select all that Apply)* A. Stop Yaw B. Stop Roll C. Pitch Down D. Pitch Up
Answers: A. Stop Yaw B. Stop Roll C. Pitch Down
You are flying along V105 South bound between DRK and KARLO and experience an engine failure. Determine the following: Temperature Pressure Altitude Single Engine Climb Rate at the VOR MEA
Answers: Temperature = 3 Pressure Altitude = 12,000 Single Engine Climb Rate at the VOR MEA = 57 or 57.5 or 58 (an attempt at an explanation) Step 1: this is easy, we need to figure out the MEA first then go down the list. Seeing that V105 southbound requires an MEA of 12,000 (disregard GPS MEA), we can work from there. Step 2: For pressure altitude, since we are 29.92, we don't need any corrections \\ (29.92-29.92)*1000+12,000 = 12,000 PALT Step 3: with this in mind, we look at the 12,000 mark…
If an engine failure occurs during the takeoff roll, the pilot should... A. Retard both power levers immediately B. Retard only the power lever of the operating engine C. Continue the takeoff, then feather the inoperative engine
A. Retard both power levers immediately
The DA42's Fire Detection System will provide the pilot with what indications in the case of an Engine Fire *(Select all that Apply)* (1) Aural Alert (2) Fire Extinguishing (3) Automatic Propeller Feathering (4) L/R Eng Fire Annunciator
Answers: (1) Aural Alert (4) L/R Eng Fire Annunciator
A zero side-slip condition may be confirmed by verifying... A. The slip/skid indicator is ½ out toward the operating engine B. The slip/skid indicator is ½ out toward the inoperative engine C. The slip/skid indicator is ½ out in the direction of the turn
A. The slip/skid indicator is ½ out toward the operating engine
Per the image below of a DA42 PFD with zero sideslip established, the aircraft is... A. Below its OEI service ceiling B. Above its OEI absolute ceiling C. Above its OEI service ceiling
A. Below its OEI service ceiling Note: the reason for this is because we see a FPM climb of 350, which is more than the 50 FPM requirement for determining service ceiling. Note: here, I am pretty sure that we are also having a right engine failure. We are banking to the left, with the slip/skid halfway out --> meaning we are in a zero sideslip situation.
You are flying at 13,000 MSL on V291 between TAWNE and Winslow VORTAC (INW). Based on the single-engine climb performance as plotted by the temperatures, what will happen if an engine fails? A. The airplane will maintain altitude. B. The airplane will descend to the absolute ceiling at approximately 10,250 MSL. C. The airplane will descend to the service ceiling at approximately 5,750 MSL.
A. The airplane will maintain altitude. Note: as the MEA is 10,100 for V291, we can see that absolute ceiling is somewhere around 16,000. We are even below the service ceiling, so we can expect operable climb performance at the MEA.
Using the images below, calculate Service Ceiling and Absolute Ceiling for a filed route V257 SE from DRK. Will you be able to maintain the MEA? (Yes / No)
Answer: Yes (an attempt at an explanation) Note: I could very well be wrong about this process, so take what I say with a grain of salt. Step 1: first off, we need to figure what temperature data to use. In theory, we can use any two lines below 14,000 and (assuming our straight edge is straight enough), we can get our answers for service/absolute ceilings. \\ will use 9,000 @ PRC (2119+07) \\ will use 12,000 @PRC (2332+03) Step 2: now we just plot these two points onto the graph Step 3: now we…
A windmilling propeller is most likely to help reduce yawing motion when maneuvering with one engine inop. (True / False)
Answer: False Note: windmilling props will increase drag a ton, which is why we want to feather our dead engine's props in OEI scenarios.
What action is immediately required when an engine fails? A. Regain directional control B. Troubleshoot the failed engine C. Identify the failed engine
A. Regain directional control
What statement is true regarding forces created by the engines when both engines are operating in a conventional propeller multiengine airplane? A. The roll from both engines is equal and opposite. B. The right engine causes a stronger yaw motion to the left C. The left engine causes a stronger roll motion to the right.
B. The right engine causes a stronger yaw motion to the left
As you slow a multiengine airplane, in which condition would the airplane reach a stall condition the soonest? A. Airplane CG has remained the same B. Airplane CG has shifted forward during flight C. Airplane CG has shifted aft during flight
B. Airplane CG has shifted forward during flight
The DA42's Hot bus powers: A. Alternator relays + Low pressure fuel pumps B. Standby attitude indicator + flood light C. ECUs + Engine glow plugs D. Pilot map light + ELT
D. Pilot map light + ELT
A diesel engine's common rail connects the ________ & _________ A. High Pressure Fuel Pump & Fuel Injectors B. Low Pressure Fuel pump & High Pressure Fuel Pump C. Fuel Injectors & Fuel Cooler
A. High Pressure Fuel Pump & Fuel Injectors
Each engine is equipped with _______ low pressure pump(s) and _________ high pressure pump(s) for fuel delivery. (Assume no auxiliary fuel tanks are installed)
Answer: 2 low pressure, 1 high pressure
Dead Foot, Dead __________ A. Engine B. Critical Engine C. Landing gear D. Purple
A. Engine
What happens to Actual VMC if there is a more aft CG? A. stays the same B. increases C. decreases
B. increases Note: This is because there is less moment arm for your rudder/vertical stabilizer to counteract the asymmetric thrust.
The maximum weight in the DA42's nose baggage is A. 33kg B. 33lb C. 66kg D. 66lb
D. 66lb
Which statement best describes the purpose of the up position switches within the landing gear system? A. There are no up position switches B. The contacting of all three position limit switches will turn off the “gear unsafe” light. C. The contacting of all three position limit switches will turn off the hydraulic pump.
B. The contacting of all three position limit switches will turn off the “gear unsafe” light.
The Red Arrows are pointing at... Note: this is not an original image, because this question was sourced without an image. A. Dogtooth B. AoA Indicators C. Vortex Generators
C. Vortex Generators Note: this is not an original image, because this question was sourced without an image.
If both the Main tanks and Aux tanks are full, what is the maximum amount of fuel weight in the aircraft on the ramp? in lbs A. 76.4 gal B. 350 lb C. 50 gal D. 556 lbs
A. 76.4 gal (the likely correct answer) ?????. 356 lb (according to quizlet) Note: CAUTION CAUTION CAUTION I could not verify this answer, as the original answer was inputted to be 356lbs on the quizlet (not being an option given). My assumption is that it is was trying to do: 50 * 7.01 = 350.5 lbs However, that only assumes that the wing tanks are full - NOT aux. If aux are full, that would give us another 26.4 gallons. In this case, the likely answer is that it is 76.4 gallons, however, the q…
What is true about a DA42's turbocharger? A. Is cooled by Propeller Governor Oil B. Is electrically operated C. Has a waste gate
C. Has a waste gate
Use the included images and the following information to calculate the accelerate-stop distance in meters: Aircraft weight: 3748 lbs. Pressure altitude: 7000 ft. Temperature: 10 degrees C A. 3540 B. 5840 C. 1080
C. 1080 Note: the process is pretty simple. we just need to add the ground roll for takeoff and landing. \\ 650+430 = 1080
How may a pilot decrease VMC in flight if the center of gravity (CG) is located at the point indicated by the blue circle? A. Extend the landing gear. B. If the right engine has failed, move passengers and baggage to the right side of the cabin/cockpit. C. Pitch down to increase airspeed.
A. Extend the landing gear. Note: I am not really sure what the logic is. My guess is that (B) is unreasonable, though it could technically have an effect on CG. (C) technically does not decrease VMC , only gets your airspeed at or above VMC. This leads only (A) to be the most correct.
The DA42's ailerons and flaps have pins to check during pre-flight. What are they called?: A. Roll pins B. D pins C. C pins
A. Roll pins
Which image shows the airplane properly configured (bank and yaw) in a zero-sideslip condition after the left engine fails? 1). Image A 2). Image B 3). Image C
1). Image A
Select the most true statement about Landing Gear Hydraulic Systems A. The piston rod moves due to differential surface area in a pressurized system B. Air must be present in the lines for the hydraulic to work C. piston rod extended always indicates Gear Extended
A. The piston rod moves due to differential surface area in a pressurized system Note: the fun part of this is that we never really learned about the landing gear system (other than switches and whatnot). However, from what we do know, I think we can logic this through. (B) makes no sense, as hydraulic systems in general need to be fully sealed. For example, if the brakelines of your car had air bubbles/pockets in them, your brakes become super mush and inconsistent. (C) this answer also doesn'…
Which forces/components move the propeller to a low pitch, high RPM? **Choose all that apply** (1) Aerodynamic twisting force (2) Governor oil pressure (3) Hub spring (4) Counterweights
Answers: (1) Aerodynamic twisting force (2) Governor oil pressure
What is the name and purpose of the extension on the leading edge of the aileron?: Note: CAUTION, not original photo A. Aerodynamic paddle. Reduce adverse yaw by increasing drag on the downward moving wing. B. Aerodynamic paddle. Reduce adverse yaw by increasing drag on the upward moving wing.
A. Aerodynamic paddle. Reduce adverse yaw by increasing drag on the downward moving wing.
What is TRUE about the folding stay on retractable landing gear?: A. The folding stay has to move over-center during retraction and extension B. The folding stay actuates the gear retraction process C. the folding stay is the black bar bends and turns on/off the landing gear position light
A. The folding stay has to move over-center during retraction and extension Note: in our class, we didn't talk about over-center mechanisms, but they are pretty cool. The folding stay is a great example of what that mechanism is.
Takeoff position flaps is the most unfavorable condition for OEI operations. (True / False)
Answer: True Note: Now, note that in most operations for the the DA42, flaps actually help with VMC and OEI because it energizes the rudder. The split flap has a wingtip vortice that hits the vertical stabilizer. HOWEVER, since this is for takeoff, I believe that the logic for this is that flaps will make you slower. If you are slow, with tons of drag, at high angle of attack, you are more likely to be below VMC. This is just a guess, though. You are staying at a relatively low airspeed and bui…
Which statement is most true about the Air Conditioning System in the DA42 A. Reduces TAS by 2% (off) or 5% (on) B. Reduces TAS by 5% (off) or 2% (on) C. doesn't work below 10,000 ft MSL D. increases TAS by 2% (off) or 5% (on_
A. Reduces TAS by 2% (off) or 5% (on)
Using the fuel flow diagram in the DA-42 AFM, determine the amount of fuel required if you were planning on cruising with 75% power for a duration of 1.5 hrs A. 19.5 gallons B. 9.75 gallons C. 6.5 gallons
Answer: 19.5 gallons Note: the reason for this is that the fuel flow chart is per engine. 9.75*2 is 19.5
A left alternator failure will cause A. The main battery will supply power to left ECU B. Left engine to shut down C. Backup battery for left ECU to be utilized D. Right alternator will power left ECU B
D. Right alternator will power left ECU B Note: According to the instructor, the reason why we don't have a total engine failure (due to pump failure) is because the high pressure pump is connected to the battery bus. Any additional electrical draw required from the dead engine will be supplied by the battery and live engine's alternator (supposedly)
If a pilot regains directional control by only using the rudder and keeping the wings level, what condition will exist? A. Side slip into dead engine B. Forward slip C. Side slip into operating engine D. Zero sideslip
A. Side slip into dead engine Note: I believe the reason for this is because that the rudder just isn't enough to correct you into a zero sideslip configuration. For that, you will need to bank.
During a Steep Turn in a multi-engine airplane, if the engine inside the turn suddenly becomes inoperative, the... A. roll decreases B. yaw levels the bank C. roll is negligible D. roll increases
D. roll increases
When does the variable elevator backstop become active? AFM 7-7 A. Both power levers > 20% B. Power levers at 100% C. Both power levers < 20% D. Power levers at 80%
A. Both power levers > 20%
In the four stroke cycle in a diesel engine... A. Dense air is sucked into the cylinder B. Fuel/Air mixture is sucked into the cylinder
A. Dense air is sucked into the cylinder
What pitch does the aerodynamic twisting force push the blade to? A. High Pitch, Low RPM B. Low Pitch, High RPM
B. Low Pitch, High RPM
If you reduce power (% load), what happens to propeller pitch? How does this happen? A. High Pitch, low RPM - Hub Spring pushes oil out B. High Pitch, low RPM - Oil pushes Hub Spring in
A. High Pitch, low RPM - Hub Spring pushes oil out
What is true about the turbocharging system? A. When the waste gate is closed the system is not pressurizing B. The compressor is run electrically C. The intercooler cools the compressed air before it sends it to the cylinders D. It is used to pressurize the cabin
C. The intercooler cools the compressed air before it sends it to the cylinders
What forces are acting on the propeller? A. Aerodynamic twisting force is moving the prop to low pitch/high rpm and cannot be controlled by pilot B. Increasing oil in the hub spring moves prop to high pitch/low rpm C. Counterweights use centrifugal force to move prop to low pitch/high rpm D. Aerodynamic twisting force is moving prop to high pitch/low rpm
A. Aerodynamic twisting force is moving the prop to low pitch/high rpm and cannot be controlled by pilot
You are in flight and notice that the left tank has 15g and the right tank has 20g, what should you do regarding crossfeed? A. Pull right fuel selector to cross feed B. Pull left fuel selector to OFF setting C. Pull left fuel selector to cross feed D. Pull both fuel selectors to cross feed
C. Pull left fuel selector to cross feed
A left alternator failure will cause A. Left engine to shut down B. Right alternator will power left ECU B C. Backup battery for left ECU to be utilized D. The main battery will supply power to left ECU
B. Right alternator will power left ECU B
What will cause the red “unsafe” light to shut off? A. Left main squat switch in contact B. All three Up or all four Down position switches in contact C. At least one Up or Down position switch in contact D. Right main squat switch in contact
B. All three Up or all four Down position switches in contact
You are flying along V293 SE bound between BCE and CABER and experience an engine failure. Determine: Temperature Pressure Altitude Single Engine Climb Rate
Answers I got: Temperature: 4.3 Pressure Altitude: 11000 Single Engine Climb Rate: 84.5