T-1 Trans Check GK

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287 flashcards · Other · by Samuel Zhang

1. LH Load Bus Items

   NO RAISE: N - Nonessentials (L) O - Overhead panel R - Radio masters (L) A - AHRS I - Inverter 1 S - Standby bus E - Emergency bus

2. RH Load Bus Items

   IRON: I - Inverter 2 R - Radio masters (R) O - Overhead panel N - Nonessentials (R)

3. Standby Bus Items TO 1T-1A-1 1-58

   CRUISSE: C - Copilot Instrument Lights R - RTU 1 U - UHF 1 I - ITT 1 S - Standby ADI S - Standby Altimeter Vibration E - EFC (start)

4. GCU Purpose

   GORE: G - Ground fault protection O - Overvoltage protection R - Reverse current protection E - Equalize generator outputs

5. Items powered by AC buses

   PG FOG: P - Pitch trim indicator (primary 26 VAC) G - GPWS (primary 115 VAC) F - Flap indicator and asymmetry (primary 26 VAC shed) O - Oil pressure indicator (R and L) (primary 26 VAC shed) G - Ground recording equipment (GRE) (secondary 115 VAC bus)

6. Boost pump purposes TO 1T-1A-1 1-41, 42

   Engine start Crossfeed Wing to feed tank transfer Backup primary jet pumps

7. 3 times ignition system operates automatically in STBY

   SEE: S - Stick shaker E - Engine anti-ice E - Engine start

8. Environmental system numbers

   ABCD WE A - Air condition over temp 400°F (53 psi) B - Bleed air duct fail 350°F (3.5 ± .5 psi) C - Cabin air overheat 390 ± 15°F D - Defog air overheat 200°F W - Wing anti-ice 140°F E - Engine anti-ice 120°F

9. Entering MOA check

   ABCD ME: A - Altimeters B - Boundaries C - Cruise/clear D - Discrete M - MCT E - Established

10. After maneuver check

    WACC: W - Winds A - Area C - Clear C - Configure

11. TP stall check 11-247 3.4.1

    YAMS 2020: Y - Yaw damper A - AOA 1.3 M - MCT S - Speed bugged 20 - Below 200 KIAS 20 - Below FL 200

12. Required crew announcements

    AF POEM: A - Aircraft transfer F - Fuel switch positioning P - Position (leaving) O - Oxygen on/off M - Maneuver

13. Bleed air items

    HHAD PB: H - Hydraulic reservoir (15 psi) H - HMU A - Anti-ice D - Door seal P - Pressurization B - Bearings

14. Aircraft categories

    A: < 90 B: 91 - 120 C: 121 - 140 D: 141 - 165 E: > 165

15. Hydraulics items TO 1T-1A-1 1-68

    F - Flaps L - Landing gear (normal extension) A - Anti skid P - Power brakes S - Speed brakes

16. Emergency Bus Items

    SLEEVES: S - Selected left hand instruments (N1 & N2) L - Landing gear indication lights E - Engine fire warning bell E - Engine ignition and control (left) V - VHF NAV 1 E - Emergency pitch trim and warning S - Standby bus

17. 4 times boost pump operates automatically in AUTO TO 1T-1A-1 1-41

    EFFC: E - Engine start F - Fuel feed chamber < 11 Gal F - Fuel feed line < 5 ± .5 psi C - Crossfeed

18. Engine accessory gearbox items

    SHOPPN: S - Starter/generator H - HMU (hydromechanical metering unit) O - Oil pump P - Pump (hydraulic) P - Pump (engine driven) N - N2 sensors

19. Entering holding check

    CAT: C - Climb out / clearance A - Altimeters T - Timing

20. Vectors check

    LIIDDDS: L - Localizer I - Inbound course I - Ident D - DSP D - DH D - DME S - Speed

21. What is the nose gear extension? TO 1T-1A-1 2-5

    ~3.5 inches for nominal CG

22. Hydraulic sight gauge FULL and FILL lines quantities TO 1T-1A-1 1-71

    FULL - 1.2 Gal FILL - 0.8 Gal

23. What is the pressure in the fire bottles? TO 1T-1A-1 1-32

    600 psi for 70 deg, side of bottle has values for deviations

24. If the green oxygen disc is missing what does this mean? TO 1T-1A-1 2-5

    Oxygen system must be re-serviced

25. How many sniffle valves are there? TO 1T-1A-1 1-45

    5 total 2 per wing 1 in gravity refueling door

26. What must be uncaged for the battery feed test? TO 1T-1A-1 2-4

    Standby ADI

27. How long is the BPO good for?

    72 hours unless aircraft has flown

28. What is the chine on the nose wheel used for? TO 1T-1A-1 7-10

    Direct water and slush flow away from engines during high speed portion of takeoff

29. What is the nose tire chord limit? IFG 1-13

    No chords visible

30. What is the main strut extension limit? TO 1T-1A-1 2-6

    1.1 inches minimum

31. What is the main tire chord limit? IFG 1-13

    No red chord (5th) for local 2 chords max for O&B No chords for XC

32. What is the tire pressure limit?

    Mains: 125 ± 5 psi Nose: 120 ± 5 psi

33. How long is the tire pressure check good for? IFG 1-13

    6 hours or end of the day if previously flown

34. Can a pilot sign off a red X?

    No

35. What is an exceptional release (ER)?

    Aircraft forms have been reviewed and aircraft is safe for flight

36. Can fuel drops be hanging from sniffle valves? TO 1T-1A-1 1-45

    Yes but fuel should never be actively dripping from a valve

37. How many static wicks are there? What are they used for? Can any be missing? TO 1T-1A-1 2-6,8,9 7-4 11-2T-1V3 Pg 31

    12; Dissipate static electricity; none may be missing (OG/CC may approve flight to home-station)

38. What is the gauge next to the aft access door? What is it used for? TO 1T-1A-1 1-91

    Power brake pressure gauge. Accumulator charged with 900 ± 50 psi of nitrogen stabilizes hydraulic pressure fluctuations

39. Battery feed test steps TO 1T-1A-1 2-4

    Disconnect battery from system (only standby bus powered) Check emergency bus power (including BAT CUT OFF and INV 1 FAIL)

40. If the AHRS test fails on one side can you try the next side? How long to hold the button? TO 1T-1A-1 2-4

    No; 5 seconds look for momentary flash

41. How many emergency lights are on during the emergency light test? TO 1T-1A-1 2-11

    4 lights

42. Why does the stick shaker actuate twice during the stall test? Does the AOA speed index setting affect the stall test? TO 1T-1A-1 2-16

    Test altitude compensator (0.4 - 0.5 for high altitude, 0.7 for low altitude) AOA indexer setting had no effect on the test

43. What lights don't come on during the indicator light test? TO 1T-1A-1 2-11

    Ground comm Engine start (2) starter disengage ELT red gear indicator

44. ITT should rise within how many seconds of placing throttle to idle? TO 1T-1A-1 2-15

    10 seconds

45. What should you do if abnormal start indications occur prior to advancing throttles? TO 1T-1A-1 2-15

    PUSH TO DISENG

46. What should you do if abnormal start indications occur after placing throttle to IDLE? TO 1T-1A-1 2-15

    TIC D: T - Throttle to CUTOFF I - Ignition switch to OFF C - Clock: time for up to 15 sec in remaining 30 sec starter duty cycle D - Disengage starter

47. What should you do if starter does not drop out by 45%? TO 1T-1A-1 2-15

    Press starter disengage. If doesn't extinguish: cut-off throttles > battery switch off > master generators EMER

48. What does it mean when the blowout disc for the fire bottles is missing? TO 1T-1A-1 1-35

    Bottle has been discharged, consult maintenence

49. Why does the AC BUS SHED annunciator come on during EMER test? TO 1T-1A-1 1-67)

    Invertor 2 is powered by the emergency bus, Invertor 1 is offline

50. Oil quantity indicator bad vs oil quantity low TO 1T-1A-1 1-19

    Bad indicator: light won't illuminate when pressed Oil quantity low: light illuminates when tested but not when level check switch pressed may also indicate that the level sensing system has failed must be visually checked with dipstick

51. What does a red / or -- indicate on 781? IFG 1-13

    / means minor maintenance -- means inspection overdue

52. When must engine anti-ice be turned on during ground ops? TO 1T-1A-1 2-16

    SAT of 5°C or colder with visible moisture

53. Which door seal is the one that inflates? TO 1T-1A-1 1-120

    Door seal that is attached to fuselage

54. What are the wing leading edge scoop and wingtip vent scoop used for? TO 1T-1A-1 3-20

    Mixing ambient air with bleed air for wing anti-ice system

55. What is the wing fuel tank pressurization scoop used for? TO 1T-1A-1 1-36

    Keeps positive air pressure on the fuel as wing fuel decreases

56. What is the max power allowed during ground ops in congested areas?

    70% N2

57. What is the minimum speed anti-skid activates? TO 1T-1A-1 1-93

    14 knots wheel speed Upon landing, 37 knots wheel speed or > 2.5 sec WOW whichever occurs first

58. What is the minimum taxi distance behind another aircraft? 11-2T-1V3 3.2.2-3.2.3

    150 ft during the day 300 ft during night or ice/snow

59. What is the minimum distance you can taxi from an obstacle? 11-2T-1V3 3.2.1 11-218 1.16.3, Table 1.2

    25 feet 10 feet with a wing marshaller 10 feet with painted lines at home station

60. When is a wing marshaller needed? 11-218 Table 1.2

    < 25 ft

61. How is radar tested? TO 1T-1A-1 1-366

    Press RDR CTRL on center console > Pres TEST LSK > check for "hotdog" on MFD (2 scans)

62. How is TCAS tested? TO 1T-1A-1 1-347

    Press ATC LSK on right side RTU > Press TST LSK

63. What happens when you discharge the handheld fire extinguishers? TO 1T-1A-1 1-413

    All discharges at once

64. When must you wait 4 seconds during the Anti-skid test? TO 1T-1A-1 2-19

    After moving switch back to OFF and applying brakes

65. What is the minimum taxi width?

    New 2T-1V3 no longer specifies a minimum taxi width

66. During an abort, apply brakes no later than when? (2T-1 3.3.15.3

    Generally do not delay brake application if runway remaining is less than RCR-corrected CFL

67. Brake energy absorption limit for landing? TO 1T-1A-1 5-12

    8.1 million ft/lbs (4.05 per brake)

68. Account for how much brake energy absorption during taxi? TO 1T-1A-1 5-12

    0.5 million ft/lbs uphill and level, 2 million downhill

69. What kind of hydraulic pumps does the T-1 have? TO 1T-1A-1 1-71

    Engine-driven variable displacement rotary plunger type

70. What circuit breakers do you NOT reset? TO 1T-1A-1 3-17, 20

    Bus feeder circuit breakers Fuel system circuit breakers

71. When do speed brakes auto-retract? TO 1T-1A-1 1-96)

    Throttles moved to normal takeoff position (~88% N1) or flaps > 10

72. What do we use to calculate refusal speed?

    ASDA

73. Do we use TORA or TODA for TOLD calculations?

    TORA because it's only the usable runway, which is shorter "TODA-lly useless"

74. What happens when master generator switches moved to EMER? TO 1T-1A-1 1-64

    Only the standby bus is powered (cuts off generator and battery)

75. When the master generator is in EMER, how can you power the emergency bus? TO 1T-1A-1 1-64

    Move the battery switch to EMER

76. Crossfeeding from left tank turns on which boost pump? TO 1T-1A-1 2-12

    Left

77. How long does it take for heat to fully disperse throughout the brakes? TO 1T-1A-1 5-13

    15 minutes

78. How long must you wait before approaching hot brakes? TO 1T-1A-1 5-12

    30 minutes

79. What is the general guidance for a bird strike after takeoff? 86th Standards 4.8.4.2

    Consider not retracting gear/flaps if damage suspected. Full stop if flying normally, do a controllability check if flying abnormally

80. When must you request clearance to enter a MOA?

    Only when ascending or descending into the MOA (after proceeding direct). Clearance not necessary if given a level-off altitude.

81. What are the assumptions for section 8 landing distance charts (TOLD)? TO 1T-1A-1-1 A8

    3-degree approach to 50 ft obstacle height IDLE at 50 ft 1.4 seconds from touchdown to taxi attitude Max braking with anti-skid at taxi attitude RCR of 23

82. How often should MCT be recomputed?

    Every 5,000 feet

83. How long does normal landing gear extension/retraction take? TO 1T-1A-1 1-85

    7 seconds

84. How long does it take for the emergency gear extension to get the gear down and locked? TO 1T-1A-1 1-85

    30 seconds

85. How far must the emergency gear handle be pulled?

    10 inches

86. When does the landing gear warning horn sound? TO 1T-1A-1 1-86

    Gear not down/locked: flaps 0/10 and power reduced to ~70% N2 or less (can be silenced) flaps beyond 10 (cannot be silenced) On the ground when throttles advanced to TRT when pitch trim not set for takeoff

87. What are the three speeds for steep turns?

    160, 200, 230 KIAS

88. What altitude is required for stalls, slow flight, and demos? 11-2T-1V3 3.4.10

    5,000 ft AGL

89. What are the restrictions for unusual attitudes? 11-2T-1V3 3.4.10

    5,000 feet AGL Initiate recoveries above 130 KIAS and below 270 KIAS Do not exceed 45° bank Max pitch 25° NH and 20° NL Use no more than MCT

90. What is a good lead point for vertical S level/climb/descents?

    10% VVI (100 feet)

91. What is the normal aim point on a 30-flap straight in visual pattern?

    1,000 ft middle windscreen captain's bars on top AOA indexer

92. A 500 ft aim point corresponds to what TCH? 11-247 4.9.2

    20 ft

93. What is the T-1 landing zone? 11-247 4.9.2

    500 - 2,000 feet

94. What is the desired TCH window?

    20-60 ft for CTS 32-60 ft on an approach

95. What is touchdown speed?

    Vapp - 6 kts

96. What is the max descent rate allowed at touchdown?

    600 ft/min

97. What can you do to determine whether yaw damper is engaged without checking the switch?

    Look at the EADI for YD indication at upper left corner

98. What is required to fly at civil fields at night?

    Glide path guidance and familiar field

99. Can we do simulated EP patterns at night? 2T-1 3.5.3.1

    Yes, if weather is better than 2000/3

100. When does PF call for flaps during a T&G?

     When aircraft is at 3 point attitude with PF standing throttles